AMEDD Direct Commission Course (DCC) Practice Exam

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• Which description best reflects privacy protections for military electronic health records?
• What is the first stage of event oriented counseling?
• Which best defines informed consent in military medical care?
• What does a polar plot illustrate?
• SPC automatic promotion requires what TIS/TIG?
• What is the correct order of the four stages of event oriented counseling?
• What is the correct sequence of the three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care in order?
• AAA-117 pertains to which record?
• Which LOAC rule requires destroying no more than what is required?
• What best defines resilience in military medicine?
• Which activities are part of the Army's public health efforts to prevent disease?
• Which statement about Unlawful Influence is correct?
• What is the phonetic pronunciation for the digit 0 in the Military Numbers?
• Which item is NOT among the 5 S's and T in LOAC?
• Which statement correctly mirrors the concept of hopset?
• TIG is an acronym used in personnel management. What does it stand for?
• Which is the third transmission in the six elements of Call for Fire?
• Which option describes a required characteristic of controls?
• Which method involves mutual benefit negotiation among the nine methods of influential counseling?
• MQ on an NCOER stands for what?
• Which OPSEC step is dedicated to analyzing vulnerabilities?
• In the Be-Know-Do framework, which component corresponds to intellect?
• Which ethical considerations shape decisions about end-of-life care for service members?
• Which step is the third in the five steps of risk management?
• What does FH stand for in the communication context?
• Sterile technique in field medical care primarily aims to reduce infection risk in what settings?
• Which of the following is NOT a DoD Threat Level?
• How does cultural competence affect patient care in the Army?
• What does the T stand for in the 5 S's and T?
• Special court martial
• Which of the following best describes hopset in terms of its action?
• Which description matches FPCON Charlie?
• Which type of brief is used to obtain a decision on a specific problem or to produce an answer to a question?
• What does WARNORD stand for?
• What is the role of public health surveillance in disaster response?
• Which sentence best describes hopset?
• In the ATC risk management model, which sequence lists the elements in correct order?
• What is patient safety and why is it essential?
• Which option best describes the relationship between Primary and Secondary zones?
• Semi-centralized promotions: promotion to SGT and SSG; promotion authority Battalion Commander.
• How does resource stewardship apply to military medicine?
• Can an inspection be a search?
• Phase 4 in the transition to a new position refers to which activity?
• Why are immunizations important for deployed forces?
• Which statement best summarizes the essential components of evidence-based practice in military medicine?
• Which option best contrasts hopset with static frequency use?
• Which is NOT a component of leading?
• What is the role of public health in preventing disease among soldiers?
• What is hopset?
• Which of the following is one of the seven Army Values?
• Preponderance of evidence refers to which level of proof?
• Which statement is NOT a role of an AMEDD officer in a deployed unit?
• Which LOAC rule addresses reporting LOAC violations?
• TOA stands for which concept?
• Which statement best reflects ethical practice in end-of-life care for service members?
• Which statement best defines personal power?
• What does patient confidentiality require in military healthcare?
• Which element of the call for fire describes how the target will be engaged?
• What are Be, Know, Do in Army leadership?
• What is the purpose of disease surveillance in the field?
• Which statement best differentiates medical readiness from physical fitness?
• ADP 6-22 covers which topic?
• In mass casualty events, evacuation priorities are determined by which principle?
• What is the primary purpose of Force Health Protection (FHP)?
• What does ADP stand for in this context?
• Time In Service (TIS) measures what?
• Which statement best reflects the Army Warrior Ethos in guiding care in combat?
• Under the UCMJ, medical staff may be disciplined for what reason?
• Which ranks are eligible for decentralized promotions?
• What is the purpose of a mission brief?
• The Enlisted Advancement Record covers which ranks?
• PFC automatic promotion requires what TIS/TIG?
• Under Unlawful Influence guidelines, which action is explicitly prohibited?
• What is a key consequence of burnout on healthcare teams?
• What is the phonetic for the letter X in the military alphabet?
• In START triage, which of the following sets of color categories and meanings is correct?
• What is the phonetic pronunciation for the digit 3 in the Military Numbers table?
• AR 600-8-22 covers what?
• What is the purpose of a staff brief?
• In the context of hopset, which statement is accurate?
• Which description matches FPCON Delta?
• Which OPSEC step leads to assessment of risk?
• Which element is the first transmission in the six elements of Call for Fire?
• Which article describes conduct prejudicial to good order and discipline?
• Article 133
• Which of the following is an evidence-based leadership approach to mitigate burnout among healthcare teams?
• Which option best describes the rate at which frequencies are changed in hopset?
• In LOAC, which category is explicitly prohibited?
• Which statement is explicitly part of the Soldier's Creed?
• For a large area, the minimum number of digits in a grid coordinate can be as few as how many digits?
• Who may have an IDAP?
• In a deployed unit, which is the role of an AMEDD officer?
• Which step of the 8 Steps of TLP is Reconnoiter?
• What does NCS stand for in field communications?
• AR 600-37 describes administrative reprimands; they can be local or permanent.
• Which term is listed as the first step in team-building?
• What is the primary purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) in military research?
• Phase 3 in the transition into a new position is what?
• Which of the following is NOT a SALUTE field?
• In a general court-martial, what is the minimum number of members required along with a military judge?
• Which option explicitly states the action of hopset?
• Which medical ethics principle emphasizes equal and fair distribution of healthcare resources and treatments?
• What is the role of medical logistics in AMEDD?
• Which description matches FPCON Bravo?
• What term describes the criteria planners use to examine prospective COAs for validity?
• How can AMEDD officers contribute to civilian-military medical partnerships?
• Which of the following is a field in a SALUTE report?
• How many digits should a grid coordinate be for standard use?
• Why is a structured clinical handoff important?
• In the 7-step military problem solving process, what step comes after gathering information?
• What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?
• Centralized promotions apply to which ranks?
• What does DA 4856 refer to?
• Steps to prepare a military brief
• Which step involves identifying and analyzing possible threats?
• METT-TC stands for which set of terms?
• Which system is described as decentralized for enlisted promotions?
• The regulation that covers Procedures for Administrative Investigations and Boards of Officers is which Army Regulation?
• Which of the following describes hopset in practical terms?
• Which is the first step in the OPSEC process?
• Which OPSEC step is explicitly described as assessing risk?
• In START triage, what color category represents a patient with minor injuries who can wait for treatment?
• Which statement describes the 'Care under fire' phase of Tactical Combat Casualty Care?
• What is the importance of privacy and security for military electronic health records?
• Which LOAC rule requires treating hostages humanely?
• Who may access a patient's private health information in military healthcare?
• Which statement about justice in military medical ethics is most accurate?
• Which is the fifth step of the OPSEC process?
• Define mass casualty triage and its guiding principle.
• IDAP stands for which of the following?
• ADP 6-22 is titled what?
• You will have more buy-in if they:
• 67-10-1 pertains to which promotions?
• Which item describes the focus of Article 133?
• What is the primary objective of casualty evacuation in Tactical Combat Casualty Care?
• Which option paraphrases hopset most accurately?
• Which action most effectively demonstrates leadership promoting a culture of safety?
• What is the role of evidence-based practice in AMEDD?
• Which are the three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) in correct sequence?
• In the Be-Know-Do framework, the Be component comprises which attributes?
• Which option lists all valid DoD Threat Levels?
• Which sequence correctly lists the five steps of risk management in order?
• Which description best describes Relief in Place?
• Under Article 31B, before interrogating an accused, what must occur?
• Among the nine methods of influential counseling, which is considered the best?
• What describes evaluation criteria?
• What is the core mission of the U.S. Army Medical Department (AMEDD)?
• Which court martial handles intermediate offenses with a military judge and minimum 3 members?
• What does OCONUS stand for?
• In mass casualty triage, what is the guiding principle?
• Article 134 describes Conduct Prejudicial to Good Order and Discipline; which statement best describes its general rule?
• Which activities are part of preventive medicine in the Army?
• Which step involves making and implementing the decision?
• In OPSEC terminology, which term refers to information that requires protection to prevent exploitation?
• Which step in the 8 Steps of TLP corresponds to Phase 1, Receive the Mission?
• In radio communications, what does the term 'Over' indicate?
• In the 8 Steps of Troop Leading Procedures, which step corresponds to Phase 3 and involves issuing the complete order?
• Which component is explicitly listed as a force health protection component?
• How many frequencies per second are used in the described FH system?
• Which step involves issuing a Warning Order?
• Which statement best defines hopset?
• What is the second transmission in the six elements of Call for Fire?
• Which type of brief is used to coordinate unit efforts by informing the commander and staff of current situation?
• What standard of proof applies in civil issues according to the material?
• What is the purpose of ethics in clinical research within the military?
• How do deployed and garrison medical practices differ?
• Name two components of force health protection.
• Which description matches FPCON Alpha?
• How do leaders promote a culture of safety in medical units?
• Which statement lists the leader competencies?
• General court-martial handles which offenses?
• Which option lists the four core principles of medical ethics applicable in the military?
• Which item is included in the development of leadership competencies?
• Public health surveillance in disaster response serves primarily to do what?
• Which type of brief is used to obtain a decision on a specific problem or to produce an answer to a question?
• The concept emphasized by the L(ea)D(e)RSHIP notation is?
• Which step involves completing the plan in the eight-step Troop Leading Procedures?
• In a system using hopset, what does the rate of 2320 frequencies per second imply?
• What does the date-time group string 312200JAN16 indicate?
• What is the overall purpose of the Direct Commission Course (DCC) for AMEDD?
• Which of the following is the correct sequence for preparing a military brief?
• What is the phonetic for the letter G in the military alphabet?
• Summary court martial
• Not a component of leading?
• How many MQs can be given per five NCOERs?
• Which statement is true regarding promotion without a board in this material?
• Which AFT event tests aerobic capacity?
• Phase 5 is characterized by what activity?
• What best describes the difference between quality improvement (QI) and quality assurance (QA)?
• Why is sterile technique important in field medical care?
• A general court-martial typically includes a military judge and at least how many members?
• Secondary Zone indicates what in terms of promotion?
• The S-2 position is which type of officer?
• Which setting focuses on routine care and facility-based services?
• What is risk management in field medicine?
• If a system references hopset as a rate, which of the following is accurate?
• Which statement best reflects the concept of hopset?
• What does patient advocacy mean in AMEDD?
• Which month requirement for PV2 under automatic promotion?
• According to the material, Army leadership is achieved by influencing others through providing which three elements?
• OER stands for which of the following?
• Non-Judicial Punishment and which regulation?
• Which regulation is used for procedures for administrative investigations and boards of officers?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an Army Value?
• How does the Uniform Code of Military Justice relate to medical practice?
• What is the purpose of a medical record in the Army?
• What does BLUF stand for?
• What does multidisciplinary team integration involve in the AMEDD?
• Which statement is true regarding civilian considerations in METT-TC?
• AAA-294 covers what?
• Which Army Value is identified as Personal Courage?
• AR 623-3/DA PAM 623-3 relates to which evaluation documents?
• How is the OT Factor expressed when the OT distance exceeds 1000 meters?
• Non-Judicial Punishment is described in which article?
• Residual risk assessments need to be:
• Centralized promotions: which ranks are promoted under centralized method?
• How do ethics and law intersect in military medical practice?
• Resilience in military medicine contributes to what outcomes?
• FPCON stands for?
• What does multidisciplinary team integration aim to achieve?
• Which setting emphasizes field trauma, evacuation, and austere care?
• Which scenario best aligns with hopset?
• AAR is an acronym for which term?
• What is TeamSTEPPS and its purpose in military healthcare?
• The Army medical record serves as documentation of care, supports readiness, and provides what additional function?
• Which type of brief is used to impart information that elaborates on an order, give specific instructions, or instill an appreciation for the mission?
• What is a core ethical objective of military clinical research?
• In mass casualty evacuation, which factor primarily guides the prioritization of patients?
• What is the phonetic for the letter I in the military alphabet?
• What does Article 32 address?
• Primary Zone for promotion indicates what relative to peers?
• In a date-time group, what is the order of components?
• What is environmental health surveillance in deployed environments?
• Which item is included in the Message to Observer (MTO)?
• Which term represents the letter L in the military phonetic alphabet?
• Which of the following statements best describes a key consequence of clinician burnout on healthcare teams?